Why does John the Baptist speak in 1st person in John 1 when John the Apostle wrote the book.?
Q. John the Apostle wrote the book of 1 John so why is their a section that John the Baptist is speaking in 1st person.
Asked by Sunshine - Thu Feb 11 23:47:15 2010 - - 3 Answers - 0 Comments
A. There's not. By the time I, II and III John was written, John the Baptist had already been beheaded and was dead. He is not speaking in first or any other tense in this book.
Answered by Wise Uncle Sol - Thu Feb 11 23:50:02 2010
Q. John the Apostle wrote the book of 1 John so why is their a section that John the Baptist is speaking in 1st person.
Asked by Sunshine - Thu Feb 11 23:47:15 2010 - - 3 Answers - 0 Comments
A. There's not. By the time I, II and III John was written, John the Baptist had already been beheaded and was dead. He is not speaking in first or any other tense in this book.
Answered by Wise Uncle Sol - Thu Feb 11 23:50:02 2010
From a biblical and historical perspective, what is the truth about 1 John 5:7 KJV?
Q. 1 John 5:7 (King James Version) 7For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. Cite references please.
Asked by A LIFELONG Student - Wed Aug 19 19:26:56 2009 - - 7 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The Greek word heis[one], Strong's G1520 , used at 1 John 5:7 is not the Greek word for one that means only one, someone, making a distinction as it being only one, the Greek word meaning only one is mia Strong's G3391. Heis [one] that is used at 1 John 5:7 after research can mean a group all together as one, means more than one of the same opinion, or of the same importance & esteem. At John 17:3 (KJV) And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent. [ This Bible verse clearly separates the only true God, {AND} Jesus Christ, whom thou[God] hast sent]. To give another opinion than what the Bible says are going against the word of God while putting on airs of being christian.… [cont.]
Answered by fixerken - Wed Aug 19 22:48:25 2009
Q. 1 John 5:7 (King James Version) 7For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. Cite references please.
Asked by A LIFELONG Student - Wed Aug 19 19:26:56 2009 - - 7 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The Greek word heis[one], Strong's G1520 , used at 1 John 5:7 is not the Greek word for one that means only one, someone, making a distinction as it being only one, the Greek word meaning only one is mia Strong's G3391. Heis [one] that is used at 1 John 5:7 after research can mean a group all together as one, means more than one of the same opinion, or of the same importance & esteem. At John 17:3 (KJV) And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent. [ This Bible verse clearly separates the only true God, {AND} Jesus Christ, whom thou[God] hast sent]. To give another opinion than what the Bible says are going against the word of God while putting on airs of being christian.… [cont.]
Answered by fixerken - Wed Aug 19 22:48:25 2009
What is the beginning spoken of in 1 John 3:11?
Q. This is the message you heard from the beginning: We should love one another. - 1 John 3:11
Asked by Karmageddon - Tue Feb 16 07:12:30 2010 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. from the beginning of creation next verse gives a example 1Jn 3:12 Not as Cain, who was of that wicked one, and slew his brother. And wherefore slew he him? Because his own works were evil, and his brother's righteous. cain did not love his brother abel
Answered by seeker of jehovah - Tue Feb 16 07:19:29 2010
Q. This is the message you heard from the beginning: We should love one another. - 1 John 3:11
Asked by Karmageddon - Tue Feb 16 07:12:30 2010 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. from the beginning of creation next verse gives a example 1Jn 3:12 Not as Cain, who was of that wicked one, and slew his brother. And wherefore slew he him? Because his own works were evil, and his brother's righteous. cain did not love his brother abel
Answered by seeker of jehovah - Tue Feb 16 07:19:29 2010
How did 1 John 5:7 get into the Bible, when it is not in the ancient Greek texts?
Q. "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." -- 1 John 5:7, King James Version
Asked by bar_enosh - Fri Jan 9 14:14:09 2009 - - 4 Answers - 0 Comments
A. MODERN scholars do not hesitate to omit from their Bible translations the spurious passage found at First John 5:7, 8. After the words For there are three witness bearers this added passage reads, in heaven, the Father, the Word and the holy spirit; and these three are one. [Verse 8] And there are three witness bearers on earth. (Omitted by the American Standard Version, An American Translation, English Revised Version, Moffatt, New English Bible, Phillips, Rotherham, Revised Standard Version, Schonfield, Wade, Wand, Weymouth, etc.) Commenting on these words, the famous scholar and prelate B. F. Westcott said, The words which are interpolated in the common Greek text in this passage offer an instructive illustration of the formation… [cont.]
Answered by Mia - Fri Jan 9 14:20:16 2009
Q. "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." -- 1 John 5:7, King James Version
Asked by bar_enosh - Fri Jan 9 14:14:09 2009 - - 4 Answers - 0 Comments
A. MODERN scholars do not hesitate to omit from their Bible translations the spurious passage found at First John 5:7, 8. After the words For there are three witness bearers this added passage reads, in heaven, the Father, the Word and the holy spirit; and these three are one. [Verse 8] And there are three witness bearers on earth. (Omitted by the American Standard Version, An American Translation, English Revised Version, Moffatt, New English Bible, Phillips, Rotherham, Revised Standard Version, Schonfield, Wade, Wand, Weymouth, etc.) Commenting on these words, the famous scholar and prelate B. F. Westcott said, The words which are interpolated in the common Greek text in this passage offer an instructive illustration of the formation… [cont.]
Answered by Mia - Fri Jan 9 14:20:16 2009
Does the Quran have a verse similar to John 1:1 in the Bible?
Q. "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 1:1 - King James Bible. Does the Quran contain a verse that expresses something similar to this? Thank you, shukran.
Asked by Kaspor - Wed Jun 24 21:49:20 2009 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The Quran in more than one place refers to Jesus as the word of God. Muhammad did not know the word was God..nope. "Remember when the angel said, "O Maryam (Mary)! Verily Allah gives you the glad tidings of a word from Him, his name will be the Messiah I`sa (Jesus) alay his salam , son of Maryam (Mary), held in honour in this world and in the hereafter, and will be one of those who are close to God."3/46 All knowing Allah refers to Jesus as the word of God without explanation knowing the Gospel said the word is God. Allah uses the words "glad tidings" which is the "good news" or Gospel which is the word of God. If the Gospel was considered corrupt at the time of Muhammad and his revelation of the Quran why would Allah not explain the… [cont.]
Answered by djmantx - Wed Jun 24 21:56:14 2009
Q. "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 1:1 - King James Bible. Does the Quran contain a verse that expresses something similar to this? Thank you, shukran.
Asked by Kaspor - Wed Jun 24 21:49:20 2009 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The Quran in more than one place refers to Jesus as the word of God. Muhammad did not know the word was God..nope. "Remember when the angel said, "O Maryam (Mary)! Verily Allah gives you the glad tidings of a word from Him, his name will be the Messiah I`sa (Jesus) alay his salam , son of Maryam (Mary), held in honour in this world and in the hereafter, and will be one of those who are close to God."3/46 All knowing Allah refers to Jesus as the word of God without explanation knowing the Gospel said the word is God. Allah uses the words "glad tidings" which is the "good news" or Gospel which is the word of God. If the Gospel was considered corrupt at the time of Muhammad and his revelation of the Quran why would Allah not explain the… [cont.]
Answered by djmantx - Wed Jun 24 21:56:14 2009
1 john 1:1 what words and phrases tell you about the kind of intimacy John had developed with Jesus?
Q. 1 John 1:1"That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked at and our hands have touched this we proclaim concerning the Word of Life.:
Asked by Gracy30 - Tue Sep 22 21:43:24 2009 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. John is using these words that strongly affirm the the physical reality of Jesus. This is to dispel the rumor that Jesus was just a spirit, because a spirit could not be heard, gazed at for long periods of time, or handled. There are several passages in the book of John that talk about John being referred to as the disciple whom Jesus loved.
Answered by Kirk - Thu Sep 24 11:20:56 2009
Q. 1 John 1:1"That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked at and our hands have touched this we proclaim concerning the Word of Life.:
Asked by Gracy30 - Tue Sep 22 21:43:24 2009 - - 2 Answers - 0 Comments
A. John is using these words that strongly affirm the the physical reality of Jesus. This is to dispel the rumor that Jesus was just a spirit, because a spirit could not be heard, gazed at for long periods of time, or handled. There are several passages in the book of John that talk about John being referred to as the disciple whom Jesus loved.
Answered by Kirk - Thu Sep 24 11:20:56 2009
In the bible 1-3 John, why would bringing believers into full joy be an issue?
Q. How do we address the issue and define it today? Are there any groups/agencies doing anything to help alleviate this issue? Thanks for the help. I really appreciate it. Also, 1-3 John refers to the Epistle letters.
Asked by MeXiCaNo - Sun May 9 22:49:02 2010 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Good question, and a tough one too. I did some digging around in different commentaries, and it seems like their joy is not made completely full until they hear his testimony. So those that do not have the whole truth would not have a 'complete' joy. That could be an issue because they may not be Christians, or just have bad doctrine, working off of a false gospel. Ministries and missions would probably be the solution to the issue. I would suggest picking up a good complete commentary on the books in question. $20 for John MacArthur's commentary, he's very biblical in his interpretation. Hope that helps,
Answered by Kirk - Wed May 12 20:45:54 2010
Q. How do we address the issue and define it today? Are there any groups/agencies doing anything to help alleviate this issue? Thanks for the help. I really appreciate it. Also, 1-3 John refers to the Epistle letters.
Asked by MeXiCaNo - Sun May 9 22:49:02 2010 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Good question, and a tough one too. I did some digging around in different commentaries, and it seems like their joy is not made completely full until they hear his testimony. So those that do not have the whole truth would not have a 'complete' joy. That could be an issue because they may not be Christians, or just have bad doctrine, working off of a false gospel. Ministries and missions would probably be the solution to the issue. I would suggest picking up a good complete commentary on the books in question. $20 for John MacArthur's commentary, he's very biblical in his interpretation. Hope that helps,
Answered by Kirk - Wed May 12 20:45:54 2010
Did the gospel writer John view his first verse, John 1:1, as a means to an end? Or is it the end itself?
Q. In other words, should people interpret the gospel of John in light of the very first verse. Or should the very first verse be interpreted in the light of the rest of the gospel? I ask because many people act as if John 1:1 stands on its own.
Asked by Abernathy the Dull - Sat Aug 15 20:22:45 2009 - - 10 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Each gospel writer approaches Jesus from a little different angle, bringing out and highlighting different aspects of his words, actions, and attitude. John approached his writings with aspects of the purpose of Jesus' life as explained in BOTH John chapter one and 1st John chapter one. These chapters are very similar in language and content. With that in mind, my thought is that they stand on this inclusive introduction of the Christ and his position and power. But - John uses that explanation, and expects the reader to understand and accept Christ's position to understand the rest of the gospel account. Without a correct understanding of the 1st chapter (not first verse), the rest of the gospel loses its power and the love that is… [cont.]
Answered by angelmusic1914 - Sun Aug 16 01:00:11 2009
Q. In other words, should people interpret the gospel of John in light of the very first verse. Or should the very first verse be interpreted in the light of the rest of the gospel? I ask because many people act as if John 1:1 stands on its own.
Asked by Abernathy the Dull - Sat Aug 15 20:22:45 2009 - - 10 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Each gospel writer approaches Jesus from a little different angle, bringing out and highlighting different aspects of his words, actions, and attitude. John approached his writings with aspects of the purpose of Jesus' life as explained in BOTH John chapter one and 1st John chapter one. These chapters are very similar in language and content. With that in mind, my thought is that they stand on this inclusive introduction of the Christ and his position and power. But - John uses that explanation, and expects the reader to understand and accept Christ's position to understand the rest of the gospel account. Without a correct understanding of the 1st chapter (not first verse), the rest of the gospel loses its power and the love that is… [cont.]
Answered by angelmusic1914 - Sun Aug 16 01:00:11 2009
Jehovah's Witnesses (and friends): What does John 1:1-3 teach us?
Q. Usually when John 1:1 is drawn to our attention it involves the Trinity. We tend to focus on that. Putting the Trinity aside, what are these verses trying to tell us?
Asked by Abernathy the Dull - Thu Jun 24 19:04:17 2010 - - 7 Answers - 0 Comments
A. That the Word has a far more special position than what we may give credit for. Think of being the Spokesman for Jehovah with the rest of all creation, spirit and human. Think of the favored relationship to gain the intmacy and knowledge to be able to be honored with such an assignment. And to have that "hands on" experience with al creation - almost unbelievable what the Word has been honored with. And then to be so humble to come to the earth to live under the circumstances that he did - what love he had for Jehovah and for mankind. He truly prsonified wisdom and showed his fondness for mankind. (Proverbs chapter 8) For each and every one of us.
Answered by angelmusic1914 - Thu Jun 24 19:54:33 2010
Q. Usually when John 1:1 is drawn to our attention it involves the Trinity. We tend to focus on that. Putting the Trinity aside, what are these verses trying to tell us?
Asked by Abernathy the Dull - Thu Jun 24 19:04:17 2010 - - 7 Answers - 0 Comments
A. That the Word has a far more special position than what we may give credit for. Think of being the Spokesman for Jehovah with the rest of all creation, spirit and human. Think of the favored relationship to gain the intmacy and knowledge to be able to be honored with such an assignment. And to have that "hands on" experience with al creation - almost unbelievable what the Word has been honored with. And then to be so humble to come to the earth to live under the circumstances that he did - what love he had for Jehovah and for mankind. He truly prsonified wisdom and showed his fondness for mankind. (Proverbs chapter 8) For each and every one of us.
Answered by angelmusic1914 - Thu Jun 24 19:54:33 2010
Jehovah's Witnesses: Can you give me the explanation the WTB Society uses for John 1:1?
Q. I know that the WTB Society has a scholarly based argument for the use of the indefinite article "a" in John 1:1 as in, "...and the Word was 'a' god". Needless to say, this rendering has created much controversy. How do you substantiate this translation from the original Greek?
Asked by Shmartazz - Wed May 19 10:36:12 2010 - - 6 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The original text is:1 , , . 2 . 3 ' , . 4 , . My translation according to the original text: 1 In the begining there was the "Logos", and the "Logos" was "to" the God, and God was the "Logos". 2 He was in the begining "to" the God. 3 everything through him was "created", and without him nothing, which has been "created", would be "created". 4 in him there was life, and the life was the light of the humans. "Logos" except for Word means also Logic, Mind, Reason, Speech. I don't think that Word actually translated the actual meaning. "to" is translated by some as "with". I'm not sure about this translation. "created" can be also translated with "made". In my personal opinion, the begining of the Gospel of John shows us… [cont.]
Answered by M K - Fri May 21 16:38:25 2010
Q. I know that the WTB Society has a scholarly based argument for the use of the indefinite article "a" in John 1:1 as in, "...and the Word was 'a' god". Needless to say, this rendering has created much controversy. How do you substantiate this translation from the original Greek?
Asked by Shmartazz - Wed May 19 10:36:12 2010 - - 6 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The original text is:1 , , . 2 . 3 ' , . 4 , . My translation according to the original text: 1 In the begining there was the "Logos", and the "Logos" was "to" the God, and God was the "Logos". 2 He was in the begining "to" the God. 3 everything through him was "created", and without him nothing, which has been "created", would be "created". 4 in him there was life, and the life was the light of the humans. "Logos" except for Word means also Logic, Mind, Reason, Speech. I don't think that Word actually translated the actual meaning. "to" is translated by some as "with". I'm not sure about this translation. "created" can be also translated with "made". In my personal opinion, the begining of the Gospel of John shows us… [cont.]
Answered by M K - Fri May 21 16:38:25 2010
Why do some people say that John 1:1 cleary explains the trinity if?
Q. first of all, the Word was with God. So, was he God or was he with him? Second of all, the Greek language didn't use the word God with the definite article when referring to Jesus. It used the same word that was used in Acts 12:22 and Acts 28:6 to refer to people that were obviously not the God almighty. So, why all of a sudden does it get used in this context at John 1:1?
Asked by Doug - Mon Nov 2 15:24:23 2009 - - 7 Answers - 0 Comments
A. They are not the same person in my mind. Nowhere does Jesus say that he is. Not only that, he prayed to his father in John 17. Was he praying to himself? Mr Mckenzie obviously has done some studying. But, you clearly have a point about John 1:1. That word is also used throughout the Greek scriptures and is NOT used to refer to God almighty. That word is used to also mean godlike, or divine, a mighty one. The Bible also refers to angels in this sense. It simply means being in God's nature. 2 Cor 4:4 we also see the use of the word "god". Of course in this case it is referring to Satan the Devil. Just take into consideration that the definite article, which they did have in ancient Greek, is not used here. Take that into… [cont.]
Answered by Joao Barbalho - Mon Nov 2 16:09:09 2009
Q. first of all, the Word was with God. So, was he God or was he with him? Second of all, the Greek language didn't use the word God with the definite article when referring to Jesus. It used the same word that was used in Acts 12:22 and Acts 28:6 to refer to people that were obviously not the God almighty. So, why all of a sudden does it get used in this context at John 1:1?
Asked by Doug - Mon Nov 2 15:24:23 2009 - - 7 Answers - 0 Comments
A. They are not the same person in my mind. Nowhere does Jesus say that he is. Not only that, he prayed to his father in John 17. Was he praying to himself? Mr Mckenzie obviously has done some studying. But, you clearly have a point about John 1:1. That word is also used throughout the Greek scriptures and is NOT used to refer to God almighty. That word is used to also mean godlike, or divine, a mighty one. The Bible also refers to angels in this sense. It simply means being in God's nature. 2 Cor 4:4 we also see the use of the word "god". Of course in this case it is referring to Satan the Devil. Just take into consideration that the definite article, which they did have in ancient Greek, is not used here. Take that into… [cont.]
Answered by Joao Barbalho - Mon Nov 2 16:09:09 2009
1 John 4:20 ... How do we really love everyone, please read: ?
Q. If anyone says, "I love God," yet hates his brother, he is a liar. For anyone who does not love his brother, whom he has seen, cannot love God, whom he has not seen. -- 1 John 4:20 ... I think as humans in this world, we all have people we don't like, what does it mean to "love everybody" for if we are honest, we all probably have people in our lives we don't like to be around etc. .
Asked by silly willy - Fri Feb 13 11:38:13 2009 - - 12 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The bible asks us to love one another not like one another or to want to be around each other very much. To love someone is to pray for them when they cause you hurt and help them when they are in need. I think people who love those that hurt them are generally happier people. It's hard work but worth it.
Answered by Padua - Fri Feb 13 11:51:27 2009
Q. If anyone says, "I love God," yet hates his brother, he is a liar. For anyone who does not love his brother, whom he has seen, cannot love God, whom he has not seen. -- 1 John 4:20 ... I think as humans in this world, we all have people we don't like, what does it mean to "love everybody" for if we are honest, we all probably have people in our lives we don't like to be around etc. .
Asked by silly willy - Fri Feb 13 11:38:13 2009 - - 12 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The bible asks us to love one another not like one another or to want to be around each other very much. To love someone is to pray for them when they cause you hurt and help them when they are in need. I think people who love those that hurt them are generally happier people. It's hard work but worth it.
Answered by Padua - Fri Feb 13 11:51:27 2009
Christians, I have a question about this scripture 1 John 3:15?
Q. Whosoever hateth his brother is a murderer: and ye know that no murderer hath eternal life abiding in him. 1 John 3:15 Please explain this to me Christians. Thanks.
Asked by Laura - Fri Jul 9 07:11:20 2010 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. In other words, everyone who hates his brother is a murderer; and you know that no murderer has eternal life abiding in him.
Answered by Please go on, everyone cares - Fri Jul 9 15:38:22 2010
Q. Whosoever hateth his brother is a murderer: and ye know that no murderer hath eternal life abiding in him. 1 John 3:15 Please explain this to me Christians. Thanks.
Asked by Laura - Fri Jul 9 07:11:20 2010 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. In other words, everyone who hates his brother is a murderer; and you know that no murderer has eternal life abiding in him.
Answered by Please go on, everyone cares - Fri Jul 9 15:38:22 2010
What is the difference between antichrists in the book of 1 John and ?
Q. Antichrist in the book of Thessalonians.
Asked by China Doll 3 - Wed Mar 4 19:25:41 2009 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The "Battle of Armageddon", the number "666" and the "Antichrist" send a chill up the spine by the very mention of the words. For many, these words conjure up a dramatic image of some end of the world holocaust. With images that include fire, mass destruction, and the Devil himself taking political control of the world through the United Nations etc. etc. Speculations about who the "antichrist" is have included about every US president and any "evil" world leader. I remember a speculation that the "antichrist" would be a demon possessed super-human that was a genetically engineered clone. Recent favorites include Sadam Hussin of the Gulf war. I personally know of several individuals who believed the Gulf war was the beginning of the end of… [cont.]
Answered by MUhammed K - Wed Mar 4 21:38:42 2009
Q. Antichrist in the book of Thessalonians.
Asked by China Doll 3 - Wed Mar 4 19:25:41 2009 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments
A. The "Battle of Armageddon", the number "666" and the "Antichrist" send a chill up the spine by the very mention of the words. For many, these words conjure up a dramatic image of some end of the world holocaust. With images that include fire, mass destruction, and the Devil himself taking political control of the world through the United Nations etc. etc. Speculations about who the "antichrist" is have included about every US president and any "evil" world leader. I remember a speculation that the "antichrist" would be a demon possessed super-human that was a genetically engineered clone. Recent favorites include Sadam Hussin of the Gulf war. I personally know of several individuals who believed the Gulf war was the beginning of the end of… [cont.]
Answered by MUhammed K - Wed Mar 4 21:38:42 2009
If 1 John 5:7 is supposedly teaching three persons in a trinity, why is "Word" used instead of "Son" ?
Q. "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." - 1 John 5:7 And if Jesus is a "second person", what does Revelation 1:8 mean? "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty."
Asked by Frank - Wed Feb 10 12:53:07 2010 - - 14 Answers - 1 Comments
A. "There are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are ONE." {I John 5:7} The Word or Logos can mean the plan or thought as it existed in the mind of God. This thought was a predestined plan - an absolutely certain future event - and therefore it had a reality attached to it that no human thought could ever have. The Word can also mean the plan or thought of God as expressed in the flesh, that is in the Son. What is the difference, therefore, between the two terms, Word and Son? The Word had pre-existence and the Word was God (the Father), so we can use it without reference to humanity. However, the Son always refers to the Incarnation and we cannot use it in the absence of the human… [cont.]
Answered by Joan - Wed Feb 10 18:33:02 2010
Q. "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." - 1 John 5:7 And if Jesus is a "second person", what does Revelation 1:8 mean? "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty."
Asked by Frank - Wed Feb 10 12:53:07 2010 - - 14 Answers - 1 Comments
A. "There are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are ONE." {I John 5:7} The Word or Logos can mean the plan or thought as it existed in the mind of God. This thought was a predestined plan - an absolutely certain future event - and therefore it had a reality attached to it that no human thought could ever have. The Word can also mean the plan or thought of God as expressed in the flesh, that is in the Son. What is the difference, therefore, between the two terms, Word and Son? The Word had pre-existence and the Word was God (the Father), so we can use it without reference to humanity. However, the Son always refers to the Incarnation and we cannot use it in the absence of the human… [cont.]
Answered by Joan - Wed Feb 10 18:33:02 2010
Reading 2 John 1:7, how many antichrists do you think there are?
Q. 2 John 1:7 For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.
Asked by n b - Fri Jan 9 00:33:57 2009 - - 14 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Millions I'm sure-I mean technically Atheists are Antichrists and Jews, Muslims, and countless other religious people. I'm sure there are even some people who call themselves "Christians" that are actually Antichrists, but the Bible is very specific about the characteristics that will set apart the Antichrist that will rule the world and deceive many Christians and Jews alike.
Answered by mismindles - Fri Jan 9 00:41:33 2009
Q. 2 John 1:7 For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.
Asked by n b - Fri Jan 9 00:33:57 2009 - - 14 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Millions I'm sure-I mean technically Atheists are Antichrists and Jews, Muslims, and countless other religious people. I'm sure there are even some people who call themselves "Christians" that are actually Antichrists, but the Bible is very specific about the characteristics that will set apart the Antichrist that will rule the world and deceive many Christians and Jews alike.
Answered by mismindles - Fri Jan 9 00:41:33 2009
If Demas loved this present world why would the book of 1 John say this?
Q. Whoever loves the world the love of the Father is not in him that does not look like salvation to me.
Asked by China Doll 3 - Mon Jan 5 22:37:48 2009 - - 7 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Demas forsook Christ and went to live a worldly, sinful life.
Answered by Aaron R - Mon Jan 5 22:41:13 2009
Q. Whoever loves the world the love of the Father is not in him that does not look like salvation to me.
Asked by China Doll 3 - Mon Jan 5 22:37:48 2009 - - 7 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Demas forsook Christ and went to live a worldly, sinful life.
Answered by Aaron R - Mon Jan 5 22:41:13 2009
John 1:14 - What is the meaning of this beautiful verse?
Q. And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. - John 1:14
Asked by Karmageddon - Fri Sep 18 14:19:38 2009 - - 10 Answers - 0 Comments
A. All of gospel of John the Baptist is beautiful, it tells us who we are, who the Father is, who the Christ is, who Jesus is and the relationship between all of us. The gospel of John tells us that we (flesh bodies) were made by the Christ at a time when the Christ was known as LORD God and His Father was known as the Lord. (the Lord said unto my Lord) The Christ came unto His own (the flesh bodies He made) and they would not receive Him or His words. The Word is the Father. In the beginning was the Word, (nothing was created without the Word, without God first speaking. And the Word was with God, (the very first utterance was made by God) And the Word was God, (the utterance that was created was created by God) The Word of God was… [cont.]
Answered by Servant A - Fri Sep 18 19:12:33 2009
Q. And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. - John 1:14
Asked by Karmageddon - Fri Sep 18 14:19:38 2009 - - 10 Answers - 0 Comments
A. All of gospel of John the Baptist is beautiful, it tells us who we are, who the Father is, who the Christ is, who Jesus is and the relationship between all of us. The gospel of John tells us that we (flesh bodies) were made by the Christ at a time when the Christ was known as LORD God and His Father was known as the Lord. (the Lord said unto my Lord) The Christ came unto His own (the flesh bodies He made) and they would not receive Him or His words. The Word is the Father. In the beginning was the Word, (nothing was created without the Word, without God first speaking. And the Word was with God, (the very first utterance was made by God) And the Word was God, (the utterance that was created was created by God) The Word of God was… [cont.]
Answered by Servant A - Fri Sep 18 19:12:33 2009
Jehovah Witnesses: How do you interpret John 1:32 ?
Q. John the baptist said he SAW the Spirit. How can a person see a invisible force? How can a dove be a invisible force?
Asked by niceperson99 - Sat Mar 14 19:44:45 2009 - - 10 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Obviously God allowed it to be seen in a shape John recognized as a dove.
Answered by Defeater of Rust - Sun Mar 15 08:54:21 2009
Q. John the baptist said he SAW the Spirit. How can a person see a invisible force? How can a dove be a invisible force?
Asked by niceperson99 - Sat Mar 14 19:44:45 2009 - - 10 Answers - 0 Comments
A. Obviously God allowed it to be seen in a shape John recognized as a dove.
Answered by Defeater of Rust - Sun Mar 15 08:54:21 2009
Theists: How do you feel about 1 John 5:7?
Q. I believe it's one of the most controversial scriptures out there and I'm curious to know what other people think of it. It's the only scripture that proves the trinity yet most say it was not in the original Greek manuscripts and was added in later simply to prove the trinity. What's your take on it?
Asked by Lovely - Mon Jan 26 03:55:48 2009 - - 5 Answers - 0 Comments
A. First that it is not the only scripture that describes the trinity, and secondly that it is found in eight Greek manuscripts, and old Latin texts. It is also referenced by several early commentators.
Answered by jweston2 - Mon Jan 26 04:10:52 2009
Q. I believe it's one of the most controversial scriptures out there and I'm curious to know what other people think of it. It's the only scripture that proves the trinity yet most say it was not in the original Greek manuscripts and was added in later simply to prove the trinity. What's your take on it?
Asked by Lovely - Mon Jan 26 03:55:48 2009 - - 5 Answers - 0 Comments
A. First that it is not the only scripture that describes the trinity, and secondly that it is found in eight Greek manuscripts, and old Latin texts. It is also referenced by several early commentators.
Answered by jweston2 - Mon Jan 26 04:10:52 2009
From Yahoo Answer Search: '1 John'
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